This is only a side project of mine, so I cannot spend to much time on it. The current result in a very alpha'isch state.
1 Cl 43:6:
Is the difference between τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν in John and τὸν ἀληθινὸν θεὸν in 1 John based on the personal fellowship Jesus has with The Father?
In Acts 24:15, how should μέλλειν ἔσεσθαι be rendered?
See also 1 Cl